Thursday, April 16, 2009

I wonder what Dan Brown would have to say about this... (David)

Questions:
Is the cultural shift from masculine to feminine seen elsewhere in the arts of the seventeenth century (in literature, for example)?

What precipitated this gendered shift? Was it a byproduct of the surrounding culture, or did the musical shift catalyze a paradigm shift in the society? Were female composers the cause of the change? If no, why not?

Why is Germany, with such proximity to “romantic” (read: feminine) areas like France and Italy, the hotbed of masculine thought?

Given modern society’s preoccupation with affording equal rights of the sexes, are we currently living in a definitively masculine or feminine age? What sort of cultural clues justify your opinion?

No comments:

Post a Comment