Masculinity in Music... Fact or Fable?! (by Simon)

In differentiating and defining masculinity and femininity, Humboldt and Rousseau have a bit of trouble deciding whether the words are a pair or a hierarchy. What particular phrasing brings this discrepancy to light? If possible, how could the definition be corrected so as to avoid the contradiction and yet convey the actual sentiments of the two writers? Similarly, Head notes that the tempo di minuetto of C.P.E. Bach's Concerto in c is masculinized with “prominent double basses, horns, and powerful stepwise bass lines.” If masculinity is such an important musical quality to 18th century composers, why is it so easy to add to an otherwise effeminate minuet? Here we see another conflict of definition: if all a piece needs to be masculinized is a more powerful bass line, the term is completely trivialized. What do musical critics of the era actually mean when they say a piece is effeminate, if their meaning is uniform at all? In light of our readings in both Burkholder and Le Guin, it is clear that French sentiments towards this issue vary wildly from their northern-Germany counterparts. How might the guests at the Salon de Parnasse respond to and resolve this quandary?